100 Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Engineering Science 2025

100 Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Engineering Science 2025

ENGINEERING SCIENCE 1 (OBJECTIVE) – 2025 WAEC GCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Section A: Mechanics

1. The unit of force is
   A. Joule
   B. Newton
   C. Watt
   D. Pascal
   Answer: B

2. The moment of a force is the product of the force and its
   A. direction
   B. distance from the pivot
   C. mass
   D. velocity
   Answer: B

3. A body in equilibrium has
   A. balanced forces acting on it
   B. only one force acting on it
   C. no mass
   D. constant acceleration
   Answer: A

4. The mechanical advantage of a machine is given by
   A. Load × Effort
   B. Effort / Load
   C. Load / Effort
   D. 1 / (Load × Effort)
   Answer: C

5. A lever with the fulcrum between the load and effort is a
   A. first-class lever
   B. second-class lever
   C. third-class lever
   D. compound lever
   Answer: A

6. A car accelerates from rest to 20 m/s in 10 s. Its acceleration is
   A. 0.5 m/s²
   B. 1 m/s²
   C. 2 m/s²
   D. 4 m/s²
   Answer: C

7. The SI unit of work is
   A. Watt
   B. Joule
   C. Newton
   D. Ampere
   Answer: B

8. A machine whose efficiency is 80 % and mechanical advantage 4 has a velocity ratio of
   A. 3.2
   B. 4
   C. 5
   D. 4.8
   Answer: C

9. The energy possessed by a moving body is
   A. potential energy
   B. electrical energy
   C. kinetic energy
   D. solar energy
   Answer: C

10. The center of gravity of a uniform meter rule lies at
    A. 10 cm
    B. 25 cm
    C. 50 cm
    D. 75 cm
    Answer: C

100 Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Engineering Science 2025

Section B: Heat and Thermodynamics

11. The instrument used to measure temperature is
    A. hygrometer
    B. thermometer
    C. barometer
    D. hydrometer
    Answer: B

12. The SI unit of heat is
    A. Joule
    B. Watt
    C. Newton
    D. Calorie
    Answer: A

13. Conduction occurs mainly in
    A. solids
    B. liquids
    C. gases
    D. vacuums
    Answer: A

14. The process by which liquids change to vapour below their boiling point is
    A. condensation
    B. evaporation
    C. sublimation
    D. melting
    Answer: B

15. The fixed temperature at which a pure solid changes to liquid is
    A. melting point
    B. boiling point
    C. freezing point
    D. latent point
    Answer: A

16. The heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by 1 K is
    A. latent heat
    B. specific heat capacity
    C. thermal conductivity
    D. heat capacity
    Answer: B

17. A substance that resists the flow of heat is a
    A. conductor
    B. insulator
    C. radiator
    D. thermostat
    Answer: B

18. The temperature at which water boils at sea level is
    A. 0 °C
    B. 25 °C
    C. 50 °C
    D. 100 °C
    Answer: D

19. Heat transfer through a vacuum occurs by
    A. conduction
    B. convection
    C. radiation
    D. evaporation
    Answer: C

20. A rise in temperature causes most metals to
    A. contract
    B. expand
    C. cool
    D. melt
    Answer: B

Section C: Light and Optics

21. The speed of light in air is approximately
    A. 3 × 10⁸ m/s
    B. 3 × 10⁵ m/s
    C. 3 × 10⁶ m/s
    D. 3 × 10⁷ m/s
    Answer: A

22. The law of reflection states that
    A. angle of incidence = angle of reflection
    B. angle of incidence > angle of reflection
    C. light bends at all surfaces
    D. light travels in circles
    Answer: A

23. The image formed by a plane mirror is
    A. real and inverted
    B. virtual and erect
    C. magnified
    D. diminished
    Answer: B

24. A concave mirror is used as
    A. rear-view mirror
    B. shaving mirror
    C. door mirror
    D. wall mirror
    Answer: B

25. Refraction occurs because light
    A. changes speed when entering another medium
    B. changes color
    C. is absorbed
    D. disappears
    Answer: A

26. The refractive index of a medium is the ratio of
    A. angle of refraction to incidence
    B. sine of incidence to sine of refraction
    C. speed of light in medium to speed in air
    D. speed in air to speed in medium
    Answer: D

27. A convex lens is also known as a
    A. converging lens
    B. diverging lens
    C. cylindrical lens
    D. prism
    Answer: A

28. The focal length of a lens is
    A. the distance from optical center to focus
    B. half its radius
    C. its aperture
    D. its diameter
    Answer: A

29. The unit of focal length is
    A. candela
    B. diopter
    C. meter
    D. lumen
    Answer: C

30. A periscope uses
    A. lenses only
    B. mirrors only
    C. prism only
    D. both mirrors and lenses
    Answer: B

100 Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Engineering Science 2025

Section D: Sound and Waves

31. Sound cannot travel through
    A. solids
    B. liquids
    C. gases
    D. vacuum
    Answer: D

32. The pitch of a sound depends on its
    A. frequency
    B. amplitude
    C. speed
    D. wavelength
    Answer: A

33. The loudness of sound depends on
    A. frequency
    B. amplitude
    C. wavelength
    D. phase
    Answer: B

34. The unit of frequency is
    A. Hertz
    B. Joule
    C. Pascal
    D. Ohm
    Answer: A

35. The echo of sound is due to
    A. refraction
    B. reflection
    C. diffraction
    D. interference
    Answer: B

36. Resonance occurs when
    A. two bodies vibrate at the same frequency
    B. frequency is zero
    C. there is interference
    D. amplitude is small
    Answer: A

37. The speed of sound in air at room temperature is about
    A. 150 m/s
    B. 330 m/s
    C. 500 m/s
    D. 1000 m/s
    Answer: B

38. The human ear can detect frequencies between
    A. 20 Hz – 20 kHz
    B. 1 Hz – 10 Hz
    C. 100 Hz – 50 kHz
    D. 200 Hz – 100 kHz
    Answer: A

39. A tuning fork produces sound by
    A. reflection
    B. vibration
    C. conduction
    D. radiation
    Answer: B

40. Ultrasonic waves have frequencies
    A. below 20 Hz
    B. above 20 kHz
    C. between 20 – 200 Hz
    D. between 1 – 10 kHz
    Answer: B

Section E: Electricity and Magnetism

41. The flow of electric charge through a conductor is called
    A. voltage
    B. current
    C. resistance
    D. capacitance
    Answer: B

42. The unit of electric current is
    A. Watt
    B. Volt
    C. Ohm
    D. Ampere
    Answer: D

43. The unit of resistance is
    A. Coulomb
    B. Ohm
    C. Watt
    D. Henry
    Answer: B

44. Ohm’s law states that current is directly proportional to
    A. resistance
    B. voltage
    C. power
    D. time
    Answer: B

45. In a series circuit, the total resistance is
    A. sum of all resistances
    B. product of all resistances
    C. reciprocal of all resistances
    D. difference between resistances
    Answer: A

46. In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each resistor is
    A. the same
    B. different
    C. twice the supply voltage
    D. zero
    Answer: A

47. Electrical power is given by the formula
    A. P = VI
    B. P = IR
    C. P = I²R
    D. P = V/R
    Answer: A

48. The unit of electrical energy used by the power company is
    A. joule
    B. kilowatt-hour
    C. watt-second
    D. volt-ampere
    Answer: B

49. When a north pole of a magnet is brought near the north pole of another magnet, they
    A. attract
    B. repel
    C. neutralize
    D. rotate
    Answer: B

50. The Earth itself behaves like a
    A. giant conductor
    B. giant magnet
    C. transformer
    D. capacitor
    Answer: B

51. A device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy is a
    A. motor
    B. generator
    C. transformer
    D. capacitor
    Answer: B

52. The magnetic field inside a solenoid increases when
    A. current decreases
    B. number of turns decreases
    C. current increases
    D. the core is removed
    Answer: C

53. The instrument used to measure current is
    A. voltmeter
    B. ammeter
    C. galvanometer
    D. wattmeter
    Answer: B

54. The unit of potential difference is
    A. volt
    B. ampere
    C. coulomb
    D. ohm
    Answer: A

55. In a transformer, the core is laminated to
    A. increase resistance
    B. reduce eddy current loss
    C. make it lighter
    D. increase magnetic flux
    Answer: B

56. A step-up transformer increases
    A. current
    B. voltage
    C. resistance
    D. power
    Answer: B

57. The function of a fuse in an electric circuit is to
    A. increase voltage
    B. prevent short circuit
    C. increase current
    D. store charge
    Answer: B

58. The ability of a material to oppose the flow of current is
    A. conductance
    B. resistance
    C. capacitance
    D. inductance
    Answer: B

59. The material used for electric wiring is usually
    A. iron
    B. copper
    C. zinc
    D. aluminum
    Answer: B

60. The unit of capacitance is
    A. farad
    B. henry
    C. ohm
    D. volt
    Answer: A

100 Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Engineering Science 2025

Section F: Workshop Technology and Materials

61. The process of heating and cooling metals to obtain desired properties is called
    A. tempering
    B. forging
    C. casting
    D. machining
    Answer: A

62. The main purpose of annealing is to
    A. harden the metal
    B. soften the metal
    C. polish the metal
    D. rustproof the metal
    Answer: B

63. The tool used for measuring small internal diameters is a
    A. micrometer screw gauge
    B. vernier caliper
    C. inside caliper
    D. steel rule
    Answer: C

64. A file removes material by
    A. melting
    B. cutting
    C. grinding
    D. chiseling
    Answer: B

65. The process of joining two metals by heating and adding filler metal is
    A. soldering
    B. brazing
    C. welding
    D. riveting
    Answer: C

66. The device that converts electrical energy to mechanical motion is a
    A. generator
    B. transformer
    C. motor
    D. solenoid
    Answer: C

67. The blacksmith’s main tool is a
    A. lathe
    B. hammer
    C. file
    D. chisel
    Answer: B

68. The part of a lathe that holds and rotates the workpiece is the
    A. headstock
    B. tailstock
    C. carriage
    D. bed
    Answer: A

69. The abrasive material used in grinding wheels is known as
    A. flux
    B. grit
    C. filler
    D. slag
    Answer: B

70. The most common metal used in engineering construction is
    A. copper
    B. aluminum
    C. steel
    D. zinc
    Answer: C

71. The process of removing sharp edges from a workpiece is called
    A. filing
    B. deburring
    C. turning
    D. lapping
    Answer: B

72. Safety goggles are used to
    A. enhance beauty
    B. protect the eyes from particles
    C. identify workers
    D. magnify the workpiece
    Answer: B

73. The tool used to check flatness of a surface is a
    A. surface gauge
    B. try square
    C. vernier height gauge
    D. caliper
    Answer: B

74. The flux used in soft soldering is usually
    A. zinc chloride
    B. sodium chloride
    C. calcium carbonate
    D. ammonium sulfate
    Answer: A

75. A lathe operates on the principle of
    A. reciprocation
    B. rotation
    C. vibration
    D. percussion
    Answer: B

Section G: Applied Mechanics and General Principles

76. The resultant of two equal forces acting at 90° is
    A. same as each force
    B. twice each force
    C. √2 times each force
    D. zero
    Answer: C

77. The unit of pressure is
    A. Pascal
    B. Joule
    C. Watt
    D. Henry
    Answer: A

78. Pressure in a liquid increases with
    A. height
    B. depth
    C. temperature
    D. surface area
    Answer: B

79. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is a
    A. thermometer
    B. barometer
    C. manometer
    D. hygrometer
    Answer: B

80. The hydraulic jack works on the principle of
    A. Bernoulli
    B. Pascal
    C. Newton
    D. Archimedes
    Answer: B

81. The principle of flotation was discovered by
    A. Pascal
    B. Newton
    C. Archimedes
    D. Boyle
    Answer: C

82. The ratio of load lifted to effort applied in a machine is
    A. efficiency
    B. mechanical advantage
    C. velocity ratio
    D. torque
    Answer: B

83. The efficiency of a perfect machine is
    A. 50%
    B. 80%
    C. 100%
    D. 120%
    Answer: C

84. The point where the whole weight of a body appears to act is called
    A. center of mass
    B. center of gravity
    C. pivot
    D. hinge
    Answer: B

85. The mass of a body is a measure of its
    A. volume
    B. inertia
    C. weight
    D. density
    Answer: B

86. The unit of momentum is
    A. Ns
    B. J/s
    C. W/m²
    D. kgm²/s²
    Answer: A

87. The instrument used to measure mass is
    A. spring balance
    B. beam balance
    C. ammeter
    D. hydrometer
    Answer: B

88. The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately
    A. 9.8 m/s²
    B. 8.9 m/s²
    C. 10.8 m/s²
    D. 9.2 m/s²
    Answer: A

89. A body floats when its
    A. weight > upthrust
    B. weight = upthrust
    C. weight < upthrust
    D. mass is zero
    Answer: B

90. The law of conservation of energy states that energy
    A. can be created
    B. cannot be destroyed
    C. can be lost
    D. exists only in machines
    Answer: B

100 Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Engineering Science 2025

Section H: General Engineering Science and Instruments

91. A galvanometer measures
    A. large currents
    B. small currents
    C. resistance
    D. voltage
    Answer: B

92. The function of a rheostat is to
    A. store current
    B. vary current
    C. generate voltage
    D. rectify current
    Answer: B

93. The component that stores electrical charge is a
    A. inductor
    B. capacitor
    C. diode
    D. resistor
    Answer: B

94. A diode allows current to flow in
    A. one direction
    B. both directions
    C. no direction
    D. alternating direction only
    Answer: A

95. The earth wire is usually colored
    A. blue
    B. brown
    C. green/yellow
    D. red
    Answer: C

96. The function of a circuit breaker is to
    A. step up voltage
    B. act as safety switch
    C. supply power
    D. store energy
    Answer: B

97. The tool used to check voltage in an electrical circuit is
    A. ammeter
    B. voltmeter
    C. galvanometer
    D. ohmmeter
    Answer: B

98. The rate of doing work is called
    A. energy
    B. power
    C. force
    D. heat
    Answer: B

99. Efficiency is expressed as
    A. input/output × 100
    B. output/input × 100
    C. work/time
    D. load/effort
    Answer: B

100. The SI base unit of energy is
     A. joule
     B. watt
     C. volt
     D. ohm
     Answer: A

ENGINEERING SCIENCE 2 (ESSAY) – 2025 WAEC GCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 1 – Mechanics (Forces and Equilibrium)

(a) Define the term moment of a force.
(b) State the conditions necessary for equilibrium of a rigid body under the action of parallel forces.
(c) A uniform beam of length 4 m and weight 50 N is supported at its ends. A load of 30 N is placed 1.5 m from one end. Find the reactions at the supports.

Marking Guide / Expected Points:

• Definition of moment of a force (2 marks)

• Conditions for equilibrium (2 marks)

• Correct diagram and free-body setup (2 marks)

• Calculation of reactions (4 marks)
  Total: 10 marks

Question 2 – Heat and Thermodynamics

(a) Explain the three modes of heat transfer and give one example of each.
(b) State two applications of good conductors and two of good insulators in engineering.
(c) Explain why double-walled flasks are used to store hot liquids.

Marking Guide / Expected Points:

• Description of conduction, convection, radiation (6 marks)

• Examples and applications (2 marks)

• Explanation of vacuum insulation in flasks (2 marks)
  Total: 10 marks

Question 3 – Simple Machines

(a) Define mechanical advantage and velocity ratio.
(b) Derive the relationship between efficiency, mechanical advantage, and velocity ratio.
(c) A machine lifts a load of 200 N through a distance of 2 m when an effort of 50 N moves through 10 m. Find:
(i) Mechanical advantage
(ii) Velocity ratio
(iii) Efficiency

Marking Guide / Expected Points:

• Definitions (3 marks)

• Derivation (2 marks)

• Correct calculations (5 marks)
  Total: 10 marks

Question 4 – Electricity and Magnetism

(a) State Ohm’s Law.
(b) Sketch and label a simple circuit used to verify Ohm’s Law.
(c) A resistor of 10 Ω carries a current of 2 A. Find the potential difference across it.
(d) Explain what happens to the current if the resistance is doubled while voltage remains constant.

Marking Guide / Expected Points:

• Law statement (2 marks)

• Circuit diagram (3 marks)

• Calculation (2 marks)

• Explanation (3 marks)
  Total: 10 marks

100 Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Engineering Science 2025

Question 5 – Optics (Light)

(a) Define refraction of light.
(b) State Snell’s law and explain the term refractive index.
(c) Draw a neat diagram to show refraction through a rectangular glass block.
(d) A ray of light enters a glass slab at an angle of incidence 30°, and the angle of refraction is 20°. Calculate the refractive index of glass.

Marking Guide / Expected Points:

• Definition (2 marks)

• Snell’s law (2 marks)

• Diagram (2 marks)

• Calculation: n = sin i / sin r = sin30°/sin20° (≈1.46) (4 marks)
  Total: 10 marks

Question 6 – Heat Capacity and Change of State

(a) Define specific heat capacity.
(b) Explain what is meant by latent heat of fusion.
(c) A 0.5 kg block of ice at 0°C is melted by heat energy of 168,000 J. Calculate the specific latent heat of fusion of ice.
(d) State one practical application of latent heat in refrigeration.

Marking Guide / Expected Points:

• Definition of specific heat capacity (2 marks)

• Explanation of latent heat (2 marks)

• Calculation $L=Q/m=168000/0.5=336000J/kg$ (4 marks)

• Application (2 marks)
  Total: 10 marks

Question 7 – Sound and Vibrations

(a) State two differences between noise and musical sound.
(b) Explain the term resonance with one example.
(c) List three factors that affect the frequency of vibration of a stretched string.

Marking Guide / Expected Points:

• Differences between noise and sound (2 marks)

• Explanation of resonance (4 marks)

• Factors (length, tension, mass per unit length) (4 marks)
  Total: 10 marks

100 Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Engineering Science 2025

Question 8 – Workshop Practice and Tools

(a) Describe three safety precautions to be observed in a mechanical workshop.
(b) Name and state one use each of the following tools:
(i) Vernier caliper
(ii) Micrometer screw gauge
(iii) Try square
(c) Explain why personal protective equipment (PPE) is important in workshop practice.

Marking Guide / Expected Points:

• Safety precautions (3 marks)

• Tools and uses (4 marks)

• PPE explanation (3 marks)
  Total: 10 marks

Question 9 – Energy and Power

(a) Define work, power, and energy.
(b) A 100 W motor lifts a load of 50 N vertically through 4 m. Calculate the time taken.
(c) Differentiate between potential and kinetic energy with one example each.

Marking Guide / Expected Points:

• Definitions (3 marks)

• Calculation $t=(Work/Power)=(50\times 4)/100=2s$ (3 marks)

• Differences with examples (4 marks)
  Total: 10 marks

Question 10 – Materials Science

(a) Define the following terms:
(i) Elasticity
(ii) Plasticity
(iii) Hardness
(b) State three ways of improving the hardness of steel.
(c) Explain the difference between ferrous and non-ferrous metals with one example each.

Marking Guide / Expected Points:

• Definitions (3 marks)

• Methods of hardening (heat treatment, carburizing, quenching) (3 marks)

• Explanation and examples (4 marks)
  Total: 10 marks