Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Animal Husbandry 2025

Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Animal Husbandry 2025

Section A: Introduction to Animal Husbandry

1. Animal husbandry is the branch of agriculture concerned with
   A. soil fertility improvement
   B. rearing and management of livestock
   C. crop production
   D. forest preservation
   Answer: B

2. The main purpose of animal husbandry is to
   A. reduce deforestation
   B. increase crop yield
   C. produce food and raw materials of animal origin
   D. conserve wildlife
   Answer: C

3. The scientific study of animal behaviour is called
   A. ecology
   B. ethology
   C. anatomy
   D. physiology
   Answer: B

4. One advantage of mixed farming is that
   A. animals compete with crops for nutrients
   B. animal wastes can fertilize the soil
   C. weeds increase rapidly
   D. it increases cost of labour
   Answer: B

5. A farm that keeps only cattle for milk production is known as a
   A. beef farm
   B. dairy farm
   C. ranch
   D. feedlot
   Answer: B

6. Extensive system of animal rearing is mostly practiced where
   A. land is scarce
   B. population is high
   C. land is abundant
   D. urbanization is intense
   Answer: C

7. The process of keeping animals in a confined area where they are fed intensively is
   A. ranching
   B. nomadism
   C. zero grazing
   D. transhumance
   Answer: C

8. The primary aim of animal breeding is to
   A. produce hybrid seeds
   B. improve genetic quality of livestock
   C. increase forest animals
   D. prevent diseases
   Answer: B

9. An example of a monogastric animal is
   A. cow
   B. goat
   C. pig
   D. sheep
   Answer: C

10. Animals that chew the cud are called
    A. omnivores
    B. ruminants
    C. carnivores
    D. monogastrics
    Answer: B

Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Animal Husbandry 2025

Section B: Livestock Nutrition

11. The main nutrient required for body building is
    A. carbohydrate
    B. protein
    C. fat
    D. vitamins
    Answer: B

12. Which of the following is a concentrate feed?
    A. Hay
    B. Maize grain
    C. Pasture
    D. Silage
    Answer: B

13. Roughages are important in the diet of ruminants because they
    A. supply minerals only
    B. add bulk and aid digestion
    C. increase disease resistance
    D. increase appetite
    Answer: B

14. The deficiency of calcium in young animals causes
    A. anemia
    B. rickets
    C. goitre
    D. blindness
    Answer: B

15. Urea can be used in livestock feeding as a
    A. carbohydrate source
    B. protein supplement (non-protein nitrogen)
    C. fat source
    D. vitamin source
    Answer: B

16. The feed given to newly hatched chicks is called
    A. growers mash
    B. finishers mash
    C. chick mash
    D. layer mash
    Answer: C

17. Which feed ingredient provides energy in animal rations?
    A. Bone meal
    B. Maize
    C. Fish meal
    D. Oyster shell
    Answer: B

18. The green feed preserved by fermentation is known as
    A. hay
    B. silage
    C. fodder
    D. concentrate
    Answer: B

19. The vitamin that prevents night blindness is
    A. vitamin A
    B. vitamin B
    C. vitamin C
    D. vitamin D
    Answer: A

20. The part of the ruminant stomach that acts as a fermentation vat is
    A. abomasum
    B. omasum
    C. rumen
    D. reticulum
    Answer: C

Section C: Animal Breeding and Reproduction

21. The act of giving birth in farm animals is called
    A. lactation
    B. parturition
    C. ovulation
    D. conception
    Answer: B

22. The period between fertilization and birth is
    A. gestation period
    B. incubation period
    C. lactation period
    D. breeding period
    Answer: A

23. The male parent used in breeding is called
    A. dam
    B. sire
    C. litter
    D. calf
    Answer: B

24. The process of introducing semen into the reproductive tract of a female by artificial means is
    A. inbreeding
    B. artificial insemination
    C. line breeding
    D. natural mating
    Answer: B

25. Crossbreeding is the mating of
    A. animals of the same breed
    B. animals of different breeds
    C. male and female of same species
    D. animals of different species
    Answer: B

26. Inbreeding leads to
    A. hybrid vigor
    B. increased genetic variation
    C. reduced performance due to close relation
    D. resistance to disease
    Answer: C

27. Castration is carried out in male animals to
    A. increase aggressiveness
    B. reduce libido and improve meat quality
    C. improve fertility
    D. increase horn size
    Answer: B

28. The reproductive organ that produces eggs in female animals is the
    A. uterus
    B. ovary
    C. oviduct
    D. vulva
    Answer: B

29. The term “heat period” refers to
    A. gestation
    B. lactation
    C. oestrus
    D. weaning
    Answer: C

30. The main advantage of artificial insemination is that it
    A. reduces milk yield
    B. increases disease spread
    C. allows wider use of superior sires
    D. increases feed consumption
    Answer: C

Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Animal Husbandry 2025

Section D: Livestock Management

31. Brooding is the process of
    A. raising chicks under controlled warmth
    B. feeding adult birds
    C. controlling diseases in pigs
    D. grooming of goats
    Answer: A

32. The recommended brooding temperature for day-old chicks is about
    A. 18°C
    B. 25°C
    C. 32°C
    D. 42°C
    Answer: C

33. The act of removing the beak tip of chicks is called
    A. debeaking
    B. dehorning
    C. docking
    D. drenching
    Answer: A

34. The function of the crop in poultry is to
    A. grind food
    B. store food temporarily
    C. digest protein
    D. absorb nutrients
    Answer: B

35. The main product of dairy cattle is
    A. meat
    B. milk
    C. hide
    D. horn
    Answer: B

36. Milking is usually done
    A. once a day
    B. twice daily
    C. weekly
    D. irregularly
    Answer: B

37. The weaning of piglets is done at about
    A. 2–3 weeks
    B. 6–8 weeks
    C. 10–12 weeks
    D. 16 weeks
    Answer: B

38. A castrated male sheep is known as a
    A. boar
    B. steer
    C. wether
    D. bullock
    Answer: C

39. The process of removing the horns of animals is called
    A. dehorning
    B. castration
    C. docking
    D. drenching
    Answer: A

40. A good housing system for pigs should
    A. have poor drainage
    B. be well ventilated and drained
    C. be dark and wet
    D. be built on lowland
    Answer: B

Section E: Livestock Diseases and Parasites

41. The causative agent of anthrax is a
    A. bacterium
    B. virus
    C. protozoan
    D. fungus
    Answer: A

42. Newcastle disease affects mainly
    A. cattle
    B. pigs
    C. poultry
    D. sheep
    Answer: C

43. Foot and mouth disease is caused by a
    A. virus
    B. fungus
    C. bacterium
    D. worm
    Answer: A

44. The vector of trypanosomiasis is
    A. mosquito
    B. tsetse fly
    C. housefly
    D. tick
    Answer: B

45. Internal parasites of livestock include
    A. lice and ticks
    B. roundworms and tapeworms
    C. fleas and mites
    D. flies and lice
    Answer: B

46. Which of these is a symptom of mastitis?
    A. Swollen udder and clotted milk
    B. Loss of appetite
    C. Rough coat
    D. Scouring
    Answer: A

47. Ectoparasites live
    A. inside the host body
    B. outside on the skin or surface
    C. in the digestive tract
    D. in the lungs
    Answer: B

48. The most effective way of preventing livestock diseases is
    A. curative medicine
    B. vaccination and hygiene
    C. isolation only
    D. daily watering
    Answer: B

49. The drug used to kill internal parasites is called
    A. disinfectant
    B. pesticide
    C. antiseptic
    D. anthelmintic
    Answer: D

50. Rinderpest is a disease of
    A. poultry
    B. cattle
    C. pigs
    D. rabbits
    Answer: B

Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Animal Husbandry 2025

Section F: Pasture and Forage Management

51. The natural vegetation grazed by livestock is called
    A. fodder
    B. silage
    C. pasture
    D. hay
    Answer: C

52. The practice of grazing animals in sequence on different paddocks is
    A. continuous grazing
    B. strip grazing
    C. rotational grazing
    D. free range
    Answer: C

53. Leguminous forages are important because they
    A. add nitrogen to the soil
    B. reduce protein in feed
    C. cause erosion
    D. provide only roughage
    Answer: A

54. A good pasture should contain
    A. only grasses
    B. only legumes
    C. a mixture of grasses and legumes
    D. shrubs and weeds
    Answer: C

55. The process of conserving green fodder in an airtight pit is
    A. hay making
    B. silage making
    C. fermentation
    D. composting
    Answer: B

56. One example of a leguminous forage is
    A. guinea grass
    B. elephant grass
    C. centrosema
    D. carpet grass
    Answer: C

57. The best time to cut pasture for hay is when it is
    A. overripe
    B. in early flowering stage
    C. at seed maturity
    D. dry and brown
    Answer: B

58. The main advantage of silage over hay is that it
    A. can be stored for a short time
    B. is more palatable and retains nutrients
    C. is cheaper to make
    D. requires no equipment
    Answer: B

59. Which of the following grasses is suitable for grazing cattle?
    A. Spear grass
    B. Guinea grass
    C. Water hyacinth
    D. Couch weed
    Answer: B

60. Overgrazing of pasture leads to
    A. increased fertility
    B. soil erosion and weed invasion
    C. higher yield
    D. dense vegetation
    Answer: B

ANIMAL HUSBANDRY (ALTERNATIVE A) 3 – ALTERNATIVE TO PRACTICAL WORK (WAEC 2025 Practice Edition)

This paper tests candidates’ practical knowledge and application of animal husbandry concepts observation, identification, measurement, and interpretation as expected in WAEC Paper 3.

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES

• Answer all questions.

• Write your answers in the spaces provided on your answer booklet.

• You are advised to study the diagrams and specimens carefully before answering.

SECTION A: IDENTIFICATION OF SPECIMENS

Question 1

Study specimens A, B, and C carefully and answer the questions that follow.

• Specimen A – Ground maize grain

• Specimen B – Fish meal

• Specimen C – Bone meal

(a) Identify specimens A, B, and C.
(b) State one source of each specimen.
(c) For each specimen, state the major nutrient supplied.
(d) Mention one function of each nutrient in animal nutrition.

Suggested Answers

Question 2

Study specimens D and E carefully.

• Specimen D – Cowpea hay

• Specimen E – Silage

(a) State the method of preservation used for each specimen.
(b) Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of each method.
(c) State one condition necessary for successful preservation of each specimen.
(d) Mention two differences between hay and silage.

Suggested Answers

Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Animal Husbandry 2025

Question 3

Study specimens F and G carefully.

• Specimen F – Tsetse fly

• Specimen G – Tick

(a) Identify specimens F and G.
(b) State two effects of each on livestock.
(c) Mention one disease transmitted by each.
(d) Suggest two control measures for each parasite.

Suggested Answers

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SECTION B: ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

Question 4

Study the diagram of the digestive system of a ruminant provided and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Label the following parts:
(i) Rumen
(ii) Reticulum
(iii) Omasum
(iv) Abomasum

(b) State one function of each part labeled.
(c) Explain briefly how the ruminant is adapted to feed on roughages.

Suggested Answers

• Rumen – Fermentation chamber where microbes digest cellulose.

• Reticulum – Traps foreign materials and forms cud.

• Omasum – Absorbs water and reduces feed particles.

• Abomasum – True stomach; secretes digestive enzymes.

Adaptation:
Ruminants have microorganisms in their rumen that digest fibrous feed and allow regurgitation (cud-chewing) to ensure complete digestion of cellulose.

Question 5

Study the diagram of the reproductive system of a female mammal and answer the following questions.

(a) Label the following parts:
(i) Ovary
(ii) Oviduct
(iii) Uterus
(iv) Vagina

(b) State one function of each labeled part.
(c) Mention two signs of oestrus in a female cow.

Suggested Answers

• Ovary: Produces ova (eggs) and hormones (oestrogen, progesterone).

• Oviduct: Site of fertilization; transports eggs to uterus.

• Uterus: Site of implantation and embryo development.

• Vagina: Passage for mating and birth.

Signs of Oestrus:
Restlessness, mounting other animals, mucus discharge, swollen vulva.

SECTION C: MANAGEMENT PRACTICES

Question 6

Specimens H and I are parts of livestock housing equipment.

• Specimen H – Feed trough

• Specimen I – Water trough

(a) Identify specimens H and I.
(b) State one material used in constructing each.
(c) Mention two maintenance practices for each.
(d) Explain one importance of each in animal management.

Suggested Answers

Question 7

Study the following specimens:

• Specimen J – Syringe

• Specimen K – Thermometer

(a) Identify specimens J and K.
(b) State one use of each.
(c) Mention two precautions to observe when using specimen J.
(d) State the normal body temperature of cattle.

Suggested Answers

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SECTION D: RECORDS AND FARM MANAGEMENT

Objective Questions and Answers for WAEC GCE Animal Husbandry 2025

Question 8

You are provided with the following record extract of a poultry flock:

(a) Calculate the average feed consumption per bird per day.
(b) Calculate the average egg production per bird per day.
(c) State two uses of farm records.

Answers

(a) Average feed per bird per day = 20 kg ÷ 100 = 0.2 kg
(b) Average egg production = (70 + 75 + 80) ÷ 3 ÷ 100 = 0.75 eggs/bird/day
(c) Uses: To monitor productivity, detect losses, and plan future management.

Question 9

Specimen L shows a simple diagram of a pig pen.

(a) State four features of a good pig pen.
(b) Mention two importance of good housing in livestock production.
(c) List two materials suitable for building a pig pen.

Suggested Answers

• Features: Concrete floor, proper drainage, adequate ventilation, strong walls, feeding area.

• Importance: Disease prevention, comfort and growth, easy cleaning.

• Materials: Cement, blocks, galvanized roofing sheets.

Question 10

Study specimen M (a dairy cow udder).

(a) State two signs that indicate the cow is ready for milking.
(b) Mention three precautions during milking.
(c) State two causes of mastitis in dairy cows.

Suggested Answers

• Signs: Full udder, restlessness, presence of milk on teat tip.

• Precautions: Wash udder, avoid injury, use clean containers.

• Causes: Dirty environment, bacterial infection, improper milking.

SUMMARY OF SPECIMENS USED

TOTAL: 10 PRACTICAL QUESTIONS (FULL WAEC FORMAT)

Covers:

• Feed and nutrition

• Forage preservation

• Parasites and diseases

• Anatomy

• Reproduction

• Housing and management

• Farm tools and records